Let’s say someone develops a reliable test to see whether an embryo is gay. Would you allow abortion in cases of likely gayness?
Variant: what if it turns out that this test can only give meaningful results in the second or third trimester? How would your answer change?
1: Personally, I doubt that a person’s sexual orientation is determined by anything as simple and binary as a “gay gene”. But it does seem plausible that homo- or heterosexuality should have a significant genetic component to it. It may be a group of alleles, or just the sequence or pattern or intensity with which various “normal” genes are expressed. But for the sake of argument, let’s say that this test can measure the likelihood that once the person reaches adolescence, he or she will be sexually attracted to members of the same sex.